XTEND Showcases HUNTER Platform at Europe’s Largest Evaluation of Counter Drone Systems

Written by: Tony Korologos | Date: Monday, October 5th, 2020
Categories: Press

WASHINGTON–(BUSINESS WIRE)–XTEND, the world-leading provider of innovative XR human telepresence technology for Defense, National Security, Public Safety, and Industrial Inspection markets, recently participated in a national evaluation event hosted by the Spanish Ministries of Interior and Defense in Asturias Airport, Spain. The event featured 16 state-of-the-art counter drone technology companies to showcase and deploy their product’s compatibility with existing airport technologies.

Recognizing that counter-unmanned aircraft systems (c-UAS) are crucial for national security, the event sought solutions to prevent drone interference and other threats that endanger airports and flights.

XTEND’s SKYLORD HUNTER system, is an aerial defense platform adopted by the U.S. DoD and other world defense agencies to support military and civilian operations. The platform’s XR capabilities fuse edge technology with cognitive skills to safely perform dangerous missions on the battlefield both in the US and abroad.

“Safety is our mission, no matter the scenario. In this instance, our SKYLORD HUNTER system features air-to-air interception capabilities and instant GPS acquisition to target threatening UAS,” said Aviv Shapira, CEO, and Co-founder of XTEND. “The success of our evaluation here shows how we can revolutionize how airports across the globe are able to surveille and protect their airspace from drones and other aerial threats that endanger flights.”

Each company had to overcome two types of tests to demonstrate why their technologies are compatible with current airport communication systems and navigation. They also had to demonstrate the effectiveness of their capacities to fight against hostile drones and guarantee their designated area’s security.

XTEND had successfully intercepted a target drone on the move before allowing it to enter into the aerial area of the airport. The tests were organized and conducted by the Spanish Ministries of Interior, Defense, Transportation and the National Police and Civil Guard.

Additional Resources

HUNTER video
Image Library: HUNTER testing in action

About XTEND

XTEND uses advanced Virtual Reality, Extended Reality, Computer Vision, Flight Control and User Experience technology, to build intuitive products for Defense, National Security, Public Safety and Industrial Inspection markets. The technology enables humans to extend themselves into action in distant remote realities. XTEND’s SKYLORD systems allow a zero-learning-curve experience to operators with no flight experience and ensures success across almost any mission variable both indoor and outdoor.

Now Flying the Autel Evo 2 Pro

Written by: Tony Korologos | Date: Monday, September 28th, 2020
Categories: Aerial Imagery • DJI • Equipment • Multirotor Aircraft • Reviews
Tags: Autel • Evo 2 Pro • Mavic Pro 2

I’m thrilled to announce an addition to the drone fleet, the Autel Evo 2 Pro. Finally technology has advanced enough for me to find a small, foldable drone to replace my huge hexacopter. This is a bird I’ll be using for shooting RAW images and high quality 4K and even 6K video.

I debated with myself between the DJI Mavic 2 Pro and the Autel Evo 2 Pro and a few features pushed me to Autel side. I’ve been flying this bird regularly for about two months now, and I’m thrilled with the quality of the photos and video it produces.

The range of this drone is impressive. The flight time I’m getting crushes my hexacopter, 6x over. But it doesn’t get the 40 minutes of flight time that’s advertised by Autel. It’s more like 30 minutes or upper 20’s.

There are still some kinks and bugs to work out for Autel and the Evo 2 Pro model. After the last firmware update I’m getting some yaw drift. I’m also getting occasional situations where it seems the collision avoidance system (oh, forgot to mention that) “thinks” there are objects nearby and the bird stops and hovers.

Faa Sample test questions to study

Written by: Tony Korologos | Date: Friday, August 21st, 2020
Categories: Random

1. The “yellow demarcation bar” marking indicates

A. runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.

B. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway.

C. the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

A yellow demarcation bar is a yellow pavement marking of a single line that indicates a runway having a displaced threshold which is preceded by a blast pad, stopway or taxiway.
Answer B is incorrect because a hold line is a yellow pavement marking from taxiways to runways that consists of two solid bars and two broken bars. Answer C is incorrect because the available landing area of the runway begins after the displaced threshold, not after the demarcation bar.

2. (Refer to Figure 23.) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bulloch County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are

A. outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace.

B. airports with special traffic patterns.

C. visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.

3. According to 14 CFR part 107, the responsibility to inspect the small UAS to ensure it is in a safe operating condition rests with the

A. remote pilot-in-command.

B. visual observer.

C. owner of the small UAS.

4. (Refer to Figure 21, area 1.) After receiving authorization from ATC to operate a small UA near Minot International airport (MOT) while the control tower is operational, which radio communication frequency could be used to monitor manned aircraft and ATC communications?

A. UNICOM 122.95.

B. ASOS 118.725.

C. CT-118.2.

5. The CARE attention scan can be used

A. before starting operations to evaluate the risks.

B. during operations to maintain situational awareness.

C. at the end of operations to debrief the crew.

6. You are a remote pilot for a co-op energy service provider. You are to use your UA to inspect power lines in the remote area 15 hours away from your home office. After the drive, fatigue impacts your abilities to complete your assignment on time. Fatigue can be recognized

A. easily by an experienced pilot.

B. as being in an impaired state.

C. by an ability to overcome sleep deprivation.

7. Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A. The appearance of an anvil top.

B. Precipitation beginning to fall.

C. Maximum growth rate of the clouds.

8. (Refer to Figure 26, area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is

A. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace.

B. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.

C. Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

9. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

A. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.

B. when the associated control tower is in operation.

C. when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

10. Safety is an important element for a remote pilot to consider prior to operating an unmanned aircraft system. To prevent the final “link” in the accident chain, a remote pilot must consider which methodology?

A. Crew Resource Management.

B. Safety Management System.

C. Risk Management.

11. What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Macho”?

A. I can do it.

B. Taking chances is foolish.

C. Nothing will happen.

12. Uncontrolled airspace is

A. Class G airspace.

B. for flying VFR only.

C. primarily for instrument flight operations.

13. Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

A. Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.

B. Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.

C. Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.

14. A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by

A. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud.

B. breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation.

C. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.

15. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates

A. direction to the take-off runway.

B. designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

C. designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

16. When operating an unmanned airplane, the remote pilot should consider that the load factor on the wings may be increased any time

A. the CG is shifted rearward to the aft CG limit.

B. the airplane is subjected to maneuvers other than straight-and-level flight.

C. the gross weight is reduced.

17. In accordance with 14 CFR part 107, except when within a 400′ radius of a structure, at what maximum altitude can you operate sUAS?

A. 400 feet AGL.

B. 500 feet AGL.

C. 600 feet AGL.

18. (Refer to Figure 25, area 3.) If Dallas Executive (RDB) Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

A. 127.25 MHz.

B. 122.95 MHz.

C. 126.35 MHz.

19. According to 14 CFR part 48, when must a person register a small UA with the Federal Aviation Administration?

A. All civilian small UAs weighing greater than .55 pounds must be registered regardless of its intended use.

B. When the small UA is used for any purpose other than as a model aircraft.

C. Only when the operator will be paid for commercial services.

20. The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A. 009° and 027° true.

B. 090° and 270° true.

C. 090° and 270° magnetic.

21. What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

A. Turbulence and showery precipitation.

B. Poor visibility and smooth air.

C. Haze and smoke.

22. (Refer to Figure 18.) Of what value is the Weather Depiction Chart to the pilot?

A. For determining general weather conditions on which to base flight planning.

B. For a forecast of cloud coverage, visibilities, and frontal activity.

C. For determining frontal trends and air mass characteristics.

23. The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

A. 1,200 feet AGL.

B. 3,000 feet AGL.

C. 4,000 feet AGL.

24. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 007° radial is

A. 253 feet AGL.

B. 454 feet MSL.

C. 417 feet MSL.

25. An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as

A. an inactive frontal cloud.

B. a funnel cloud.

C. a lenticular cloud.

26. Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

A. Class C.

B. Class E.

C. Class G.

27. (Refer to Figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

A. Class C.

B. Class E.

C. Class G.

28. (Refer to Figure 64.) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?

A. Letter A.

B. Letter C.

C. Letter E.

29. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?

A. Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.

B. Freezing drizzle.

C. Freezing rain.

30. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

A. Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue; Class D and E airspace are magenta.

B. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.

C. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

31. (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?

A. 1200Z to 1200Z.

B. 1200Z to 1800Z.

C. 1800Z to 2400Z.

32. What are characteristics of unstable air?

A. Turbulence and good surface visibility.

B. Turbulence and poor surface visibility.

C. Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.

33. Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as

A. mammatocumulus clouds.

B. standing lenticular clouds.

C. roll clouds.

34. Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

A. An increase in barometric pressure.

B. An increase in ambient temperature.

C. A decrease in relative humidity.

35. In weight and balance calculations, arm is

A. the distance between items.

B. the distance from the datum line to the item.

C. weight times moment.

36. Unmanned aircraft means an aircraft operated:

A. During search and rescue operations other than public.

B. Without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft.

C. For hobby and recreational use when not certificated.

37. The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

A. position of the CG.

B. speed of the airplane.

C. abruptness at which the load is applied.

38. The effective use of all available resources—human, hardware, and information—prior to and during flight to ensure the successful outcome of the operation is called:

A. Safety Management System.

B. Crew Resource Management.

C. Risk Management.

39. At what bank angle for a turn does the additional force on the wings become significant?

A. 15 degrees.

B. 30 degrees.

C. 45 degrees.

40. Under what condition would a small UA not have to be registered before it is operated in the United States?

A. When the aircraft weighs less than .55 pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on-board or attached to the aircraft.

B. When the aircraft has a takeoff weight that is more than .55 pounds, but less than 55 pounds, not including fuel and necessary attachments.

C. All small UAS need to be registered regardless of the weight of the aircraft before, during, or after the flight.

41. According to 14 CFR part 107, how may a remote pilot operate an unmanned aircraft in class C airspace?

A. The remote pilot must have prior authorization from the Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility having jurisdiction over that airspace.

B. The remote pilot must monitor the Air Traffic Control (ATC) frequency from launch to recovery.

C. The remote pilot must contact the Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility after launching the unmanned aircraft.

42. To avoid a near midair collision (NMAC) with a manned airplane, you estimate that your small UA climbed to an altitude greater than 6400 feet AGL. To whom must you submit a written report of the deviation?

A. Air Traffic Control.

B. The National Transportation Safety Board.

C. The Federal Aviation Administration, if requested.

43. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a

A. movement of air.

B. pressure differential.

C. heat exchange.

44. One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the

A. wind direction.

B. type of precipitation.

C. stability of the air mass.

45. (Refer to Figure 20 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

A. Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

B. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

C. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

46. (Refer to Figure 65.) The red symbol at sign D would most likely be found

A. upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.

B. near the approach end of ILS runways.

C. at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

47. The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are

A. lift, weight, thrust, and drag.

B. lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.

C. lift, gravity, power, and friction.

48. A resource you can use to find out detailed information about the effects of alcohol and legal and illegal drugs is

A. NOTAMs.

B. the PHAK (Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge).

C. a Pilot’s Operating Handbook.

49. Scheduled maintenance should be performed in accordance with the:

A. Stipulations in 14 CFR part 43.

B. Manufacturer’s suggested procedures.

C. Contractor requirements.

50. What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?

A. Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the propeller blades.

B. Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.

C. Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force of the propeller in the thinner air.

51. Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

A. safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.

B. mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program.

C. wind-shear warning at participating airports.

52. (Refer to Figure 22, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport.

A. 47°02’N – 116°11’W.

B. 47°33’N – 116°11’W.

C. 47°32’N – 116°41’W.

53. If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

A. 30 days after the date of the move.

B. 60 days after the date of the move.

C. 90 days after the date of the move.

54. A small UA causes an accident and your crew member loses consciousness. When do you report the accident?

A. No accidents need to be reported.

B. When requested by the UA owner.

C. Within 10 days of the accident.

55. Which technique should a remote pilot use to scan for traffic? A remote pilot should

A. systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

B. concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.

C. continuously scan the sky from right to left.

56. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?

A. Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.

B. Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz.

C. Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic.

57. Which of the following types of operations are excluded from the requirements in part 107?

A. Model aircraft for hobby use.

B. UAS used for motion picture filming.

C. Quadcopter capturing aerial imagery for crop monitoring.

58. (Refer to Figure 20, area 5.) How would a remote PIC “CHECK NOTAMS” as noted in the CAUTION box regarding the unmarked balloon?

A. By utilizing the B4UFLY mobile application.

B. By contacting the FAA district office.

C. By obtaining a briefing via an online source such as: 1800WXBrief.com.

59. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A. Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.

B. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.

C. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

60. Under what condition should the operator of a small UA establish scheduled maintenance protocol?

A. When the manufacturer does not provide a maintenance schedule.

B. UAS does not need to require maintenance.

C. When the FAA requires you to, following an accident.

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XTEND Showcases HUNTER Platform at Europe’s Largest Evaluation of Counter Drone Systems

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Faa Sample test questions to study

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